Home › Forums › Horse Racing › Do results pages always mention a Rule 4 deduction?
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anthonycutt.
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- March 30, 2010 at 23:06 #14582
In the 2.40 at Market Rasen, I had a bet on Issaqua, but seemed to have been short-changed by the bookmaker to the tune of £5.
I messaged them, and was politely told that there was a non-runner (Knight in Purple) and a Rule 4 deduction had been made accordingly.
Yet when I checked on various sites giving the results of the races, none of them mentioned a Rule 4 deduction being applied.
What’s the story? Can anyone please tell me? I seem to remember it being recorded in the past.
March 30, 2010 at 23:55 #286621On the william hill site it says –
Rule 4 deductions
15p Reduction on LP at 05:00:00 –> 08:42:20March 31, 2010 at 00:30 #286627Grimes, the ‘results’ are unlikely to include any R4 unless it affects all/SP bets.
In the case of this race a R4 would only apply to bets placed prior to the withdraw of Knight In Purple and, in theory at least, on early prices there would be no standard deduction industry wide.
March 31, 2010 at 11:59 #286699AFAIK, the Rule4 is only published if it affects the actual SPs on course so that the returned SPs do not reflect the fact that there has been a late withdrawal – ie if there has not been sufficient time after the withdrawal for a market to be reformed.
Examples would be where a horse refuses to enter the stalls on the Flat or refuses to race in NH.
March 31, 2010 at 12:54 #286715Thank you very much for your answers, bagnallc, pompete and DavidBrady.
On the william hill site it says –
Rule 4 deductions
15p Reduction on LP at 05:00:00 –> 08:42:20What does that actually mean, Bagnallc? Particularly, in terms of my bet. I put it on the night before at a better price than the SP.
You say, "… in theory…". Does that mean we have no recourse (I don’t mean legal for £5!), if they decide not to observe the rules?
DavidBrady, as I (mis)understand it, you seem to be saying that if a market has been able to reformed, Rule 4 will be applicable, but it need not be published. Is that what you meant?
March 31, 2010 at 15:08 #286734Grimes, in Bagnallc’s example from WH the Rule 4 applies to all bets (and only these bets) placed before 8.42am where a price has been taken.
What I mean by there being no ‘In Theory’ ‘Industry Rule 4’ to publish alongside the result is that the Rule 4 applies; except in the cases DB highlights, to the individual circumstances when the bet was placed.
For example, let’s say me and you back the same horse at the same price and later in the day Horse A is withdrawn. However, when I placed my bet Horse A was at 10/1 and when you placed your bet Horse A was at 7/2 – What Rule 4 would be published?
You do have to be careful though as it has been known for the robbing bastards to deduct a Rule 4 on a horses price at the time when the horse was withdrawn if it was shorter then when the bet was placed.
March 31, 2010 at 15:41 #286742DavidBrady, as I (mis)understand it, you seem to be saying that if a market has been able to reformed, Rule 4 will be applicable, but it need not be published. Is that what you meant?
Yes.
When a Rule 4 is published with the race result, it means that this particular Rule 4 applies to ALL bets INCLUDING those struck at SP, because tjhe returned SPs don’t reflect the fact that a horse was withdrawn before a new market could be formed on course.
March 31, 2010 at 18:56 #286783Thank you Pompete and DavidBrady. It’s just good to know you’re not being gypped. But I am wary.
It’s not that I’m shocked that there could be some wrong’uns out there, but that I’m surprised there are so many good guys. What you might call a cynic.
Why after all should they be less utterly crooked than Big Business, generally, of whom Milton Friedman (and doubtless his sweet Muse, Ayn Rand) said their only moral imperative was to make a profit.
March 31, 2010 at 21:38 #286816I’m confused by rule 4. Not the mechanics of it but the purpose. Does it benefit anyone other than bookies?
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