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- This topic has 4 replies, 5 voices, and was last updated 17 years, 5 months ago by
doyley.
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- December 10, 2008 at 00:10 #9582
I’ve placed an each way bet today on the Boyle Sport Chase at Cheltenham on Saturday, the each way terms are 1/4 odds first four. If there are non runners does this change as if it was a normal each way bet, or the fact that it is ante post do these terms apply whatever.
December 10, 2008 at 00:19 #195744As long as the terms stated were 1/4 odds 1st 4 then that will not change; sometimes firms rather cheekily state that each way terms depend on the number of runners on the day, which is dubious ground for ante post betting.
December 10, 2008 at 18:36 #195896AFAIK – if there are 15 runners or less, all punters will be paid on the 1st three home..
Good luck!
Zip
December 10, 2008 at 18:46 #195898That is wrong, Getzippy.
If you have placed it when the terms were 1/4 1-2-3-4 Ante Post, you will be paid on the first four.
December 10, 2008 at 22:43 #195956Hello,
Correct DK.
I tend to do A/post via a shop or over the phone.
If 16 runners or over priced up in a handicap, you can write on the slip, 1-2-3-4, and bring it to the cashier’s/manager’s attention.
Also, on the phone you can clearly explain the bet YOU want and acquire an agreement of what bet has been struck.Rule 4 etc. comes into play when the bookies incorrectly call their market as "Ante Post", then completely contradict that term by stating "non runner, no bet".
When this qualification is added you will see in extremely small writing that "RULE 4 MAY APPLY"….again a misconception (or downright lie?)…as any non runner of a significance they consider consider significant (anything less than 12/1), the terminolgy should be, RULE 4 WILL APPLY………..regards,
doyley
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