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November 29, 2003 at 17:05 #1351
Hi,
Further to Bricoman’s request  ("Losing Run" thread),for lengths of winning runs expected in 1000 bets, see below.
Number of THEORETICAL WINNING runs in 1000 bets <br>            <br>length of              Strike Rate <br>win run    80%  70%  60%  50%  40%  30%  20%
1          32    63    96    125   144   147   128 <br>2          26    44    58    62    58    44   26 <br>3          21    31    35    31    23    13    5 <br>4          16    22    21    16    9      4   1   <br>5          13    15    12    7.8   3.7   1.2   0.2<br>6          10    11   7.5    3.9   1.5   0.4<br>7          8.4   7.4   4.5     2    0.6   0.1 <br>8          6.7   5.2   2.7     1    0.2       <br>9          5.4   3.6   1.6    0.5   0.1<br>10         4.3   2.5    1    0.2<br>11         3.4   1.8   0.6    0.1<br>12         2.7   1.2   0.3    0.1 <br>13         2.2   0.9   0.2<br>14         1.8   0.6   0.1<br>15         1.4   0.4   0.1 <br>16         1.1   0.3<br>17         0.9   0.2<br>18         0.7   0.1<br>19         0.6   0.1 <br>20         0.5   0.1 <br>21         0.4 <br>22         0.3<br>23         0.2 <br>24         0.2<br>25         0.2 <br>26         0.1<br>27         0.1<br>28         0.1<br>29         0.1
If anyone is interested, I’ll explain how they were determined.
Graham
November 29, 2003 at 19:19 #51122Thanks for all your efforts GH…I for one would be interested to find out how your stats were determined.
I honestly find it hard to believe that you would only have 26 winning doubles for both 80% & 20% strike rates and 62 doubles for only a 50% strike rate…I’m obviously missing something important here.
Regards
Bricoman
November 30, 2003 at 15:45 #51123Hi Bricoman,
Yes, you have missed something important, you have forgotten that for a winning run of 3, you have 2 successful rolling doubles, for a winning run of 4, you have 3 successful doubles and so on.
Although there is the same expected amount of winning runs of 2 for both 20% & 80% strike rate, there are far more winning doubles for the 80% strike rate (as you would expect).
Graham<br>
November 30, 2003 at 16:24 #51126Hi again,
I’ll try to explain how the figures were arrived at by two examples.
Example 1.<br>Assume a 70% win rate = 0.7 chance of winning<br>therefore there is a 30% chance of losing = 0.3
A winning run of exactly 2 can only occur if the following sequence of results occur, LWWL.
The mathematical chance of that occuring is:-<br>0.3×0.7×0.7×0.3 = 0.0441 = 1 in 22.6757
Therefore in 1000 bets, a run of exactly 2 will occur:-<br>1000 divided by 22.67 = 44.1 times ( on average )
Example 2.<br>Assume a 70% win rate = 0.7 chance of winning<br>therefore there is a 30% chance of losing = 0.3
A winning run of exactly 3 can only occur if the following sequence of results occur, LWWWL.
The mathematical chance of that occuring is:-<br>0.3×0.7×0.7×0.7×0.3 = 0.03087 = 1 in 32.393
Therefore in 1000 bets, a run of exactly 3 will occur:-<br>1000 divided by 32.39 = 30.9 times ( on average ).
To compare the theory with practice, I ran my random number programme 5 times = 5000 bets for 20% strike rate and it gave the following results:-
length of       Run number            Result<br>win run     1   2    3     4     5  average  theory
1        132   132  127    118   127   127.2   128 <br>2        10    21   36     34    25    25.2   25.6 <br>3         0    9    5      3     6     4.6    5.1 <br>4         0    0    1      1     0     0.4     1 <br>5         0    0    0      0     1     0.4   0.2
If this hasn’t bored everyone to sleep, you will see that the theory is borne out by the practice.
Hope this is of use.
Regards,
Graham
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